If Person X has no evidence on the subject himself, why is he deeply offended? Part 2 of his email says that a person should refrain from having an opinion until he has evidence, and so should certainly refrain from having a strong opinion. So by his own criteria, Person X has no right to have an opinion on the subject.
As I explained in detail in earlier web-log postings, I think Part 2 is wrong, so what I'm doing here is just exposing an internal inconsistency of Person X. If anybody wants to use just Part 1 and Part 3, they're not inconsistent. Or, if they have just Part 1 and Part 2, and do give me some evidence, then they're not inconsistent either (they're still wrong on Part 2, but they're not internally inconsistent) .
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